Questão 1
Questão
What is the significance of bradykinin in the RAAS system
Responda
-
it is a peptide needed for the release of aldosterone by the adrenal gland
-
It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to constrict, raising blood pressure
-
it causes contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle
-
it is broken down by angiotensin converting enzyme causing vasodilation and mild dieresis
Questão 2
Questão
the patient complains of a dry cough, what medication would be the most likely to have this finding?
Responda
-
Captopril
-
Losartan
-
Amilodipine
-
Naproxen
Questão 3
Questão
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) work on what part of the RAAS system?
Responda
-
blocks Renin from stimulating the release of Angiotensinogen
-
blocks Angiotensinogen conversion to Angiotensin I
-
Blocks Angiotensin I conversion to Angiotensin II
-
blocks Angiotensin II conversion to aldosterone
Questão 4
Questão
what class of medications will reduce the adverse affects of Diabetes on the kidneys as well as decrease inappropriate remodeling of the heart
Responda
-
thiazide diuretics
-
angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
-
Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)
-
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)
Questão 5
Questão
What statement is true regarding ACE inhibitors?
Responda
-
they are potassium wasting and must be monitored for hypokalema
-
they have little negative effect on lipids or sexual function
-
African-Americans & low-renin hypertensives are extremely sensitive to monotherapy
-
they increase the effectiveness of NSAIDs
Questão 6
Questão
What is considered the most serious ADR with ACE inhibitors?
Questão 7
Questão
Ace inhibitors and ARBs would be the drug of choice for which patient?
Responda
-
37yo Caucasian male with Hx of MI, and kidney failure
-
57yo Asian Female currently taking spironolactone
-
49yo caucasian female with Hx of DM, HF and MIx3
-
46yo African American male with Hx of DM, HTN and kidney stones
Questão 8
Questão
which of the following statements is True about ACE inhibitors and ARBs used for the treatment of hypertension .
Responda
-
ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen demand but not the myocardial oxygen supply
-
ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen supply but not the myocardial oxygen demand
-
ACEIs affect both the myocardial oxygen supply and the myocardial oxygen demand
-
ACEIs and ARBs are contraindicated in treating heart failure related to CAD
Questão 9
Questão
where are the primary sites of metabolism and excretion for ACEI's?
Responda
-
all ACEIs are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized, excretion is from the kidneys.
-
ACEI's are metabolized in the avieoli of the lungs, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow
-
all ACEI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, The kidney is the primary organ of excretion
-
ACI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow
Questão 10
Questão
What are the contraindications for the use of ACEI's?
Responda
-
Hypertensive Proteinuric Diabetes
-
Bilateral renal artery stenosis
-
Postmyocardial Infarction
-
Pregnancy
Questão 11
Questão
what is the first goal of Hypertension management?
Responda
-
Controlling isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)
-
Prevent the rise of BP with age
-
reduction in Cardio vascular risk
-
Improve control of HTN to below 140/90 mm Hg in adults and below 150/90 in those greater than age 60
Questão 12
Questão
what statement is true with reguard to Dihydropyridines
Responda
-
greater affinity for vascular ca+ channels than cardiac Ca+2 channels
-
greater affinity for cardiac Ca+2 channels than vascular ca+ channels
-
Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasoconstriction
-
Has an intrinsic natriuretic effect requiring the use of a diuretic
Questão 13
Questão
select all of the adverse drug reactions for Nondihydropyridines
Responda
-
Reflex tachycardia
-
Anorexia
-
Constipation
-
Bradycardia
Questão 14
Questão
Most CCBs have short-acting forms with half-lives between 2 and 8 hours and sustained-release forms with half-lives of 12 to 24 hours what is the exception to this?
Responda
-
Digoxin, with a half life of 36-48 hours
-
Cardizem, with a half life of 3-4 hours
-
Amlodipine, with a half-life of 30 to 50 hours
-
isradipine with a half life of 1.5-2 hours
Questão 15
Questão
what is the main effect of digoxin
Responda
-
opens the ATPase pump allowing free flow of Na+ and Ca+
-
inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Na+ from leaving the cell
-
Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasodilation
-
inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Ca+ from leaving the cell
Questão 16
Questão
how is dosing for digoxin determined?
Responda
-
The principal tissue reservoir is skeletal muscle, Dosing should be based on lean muscle mass
-
The principal tissue reservoir is adipose tissue, Dosing should be based on BMI%
-
The principal tissue reservoir is the CNS and dosing should be based on CSF results
-
there is not a principal tissue reservoir, dosage is determined by weight in Kg.
Questão 17
Questão
select the contraindications for the use of digoxen.
Responda
-
Renal Impairment
-
AV blocks or uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias
-
Atrial Fibrillation
-
idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)
-
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
Questão 18
Questão
what finding would make you suspect CG Toxicity?
Responda
-
serum levels of 4.5 ng/mL.
-
the patient presents with severe anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
-
ST-T wave changes on the a 12-lead ECG
-
pt presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and serum levels of 2.3 ng/mL.
Questão 19
Questão
Arrhythmias are caused either by abnormal pacemaker activity or by abnormal impulse conduction, which is NOT an example of The major mechanisms by which antiarrhythmics act?
Responda
-
blockade of Central Nervous System (CNS) effects on the heart
-
prolongation of the effective refractory period
-
sodium channel blockade
-
blockade of the calcium channel
Questão 20
Questão
sodium channel blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?
Responda
-
Class I
-
Class II
-
Class III
-
Class IV
Questão 21
Questão
Beta Blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?
Responda
-
Class I
-
Class II
-
Class III
-
Class IV
Questão 22
Questão
Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?
Responda
-
Class I
-
Class II
-
Class III
-
Class IV
Questão 23
Questão
How are Antiarrhythmics metabolized.
Responda
-
antiarrhythmics are already in their metabolized form after absorption and are deactivated by the liver.
-
All antiarrhythmics are metabolized and excreated from the GI tract
-
all antiarrhythmics are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized
-
All antiarrhythmics are metabolized By the liver
Questão 24
Questão
this drug class was introduced for the treatment of angina in the 19th century
Questão 25
Questão
what statement is true with reguard to Nitrates?
Responda
-
by providing more nitric oxide (NO) to vascular endothelium and arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation.
-
cause targeted relaxation of large veins resulting in decreased pre-load
-
Arterial dilation is more common with lower doses and can result in a decrease in systemic arterial pressure
-
Arterial dilation is more common with higher doses and can result in an increase in systemic arterial pressure
Questão 26
Questão
in which of the following cases would you NOT give nitrates.
Responda
-
33yo female c/o migraine with HR111 bp 200/120
-
75yo male c/o chest pain that has not improved, HR 63 bp 110/65
-
45yo male car vs tree, c/o dizziness, chest pain and nausea. had MI 2 years ago. HR110 BP185/96
-
35yo female with weakness to one side of her body, difficulty speaking and pain in the jaw that radiates to her back
Questão 27
Questão
which statement about Peripheral Vasodilators is FALSE?
Responda
-
Significant clinical improvement of PVD can rarely be seen with monotherapy
-
Peripheral alpha1 antagonists and central alpha2 agonists can be used to treat resistant HTN and PVD.
-
monotherapy is recommended to show Significant clinical improvement of PVD without associated ADRs
-
act by direct relaxation and dilation of arteriolar smooth muscle, thereby decreasing PVR
Questão 28
Questão
when prescribing reductase inhibitors, what lab tests should also be performed?
Responda
-
CBC
-
AST/ALT
-
BUN/creatinine
-
Lipid Panel
Questão 29
Questão
what is the clinical indication for the use of Antilipidemics?
Responda
-
increased LDL, decreased HDL, high VLDL
-
High VLDL, increased HDL, Decreased LDL
-
increased HDL, increased LDL, low VLDL
-
decreased LDL, increased HDL, low VLDL
Questão 30
Questão
The liver is the primary site of metabolism for most diuretics, which diuretic has nonhepatic and hepatic metabolism
Questão 31
Questão
if a patient is taking an aminoglycoside medication what Adverse drug reaction would you actively assess for?
Responda
-
a white crystalline precipitate to form in the superficial portion of the cornea.
-
localized ocular toxicity
-
itching/swelling of the face/tongue/throat
-
Increased Ocular Pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma
Questão 32
Questão
if planning on using a combination of steroids and anti-infectives for ophthalmic Anti-Infective treatment in primary care what must be used to perform the assessment?
Responda
-
Keratometry
-
retinoscope
-
opthalmoscope
-
Tonometry device
Questão 33
Questão
which of the following Ophthalmic Anti-Infectives has a high hypersensitivity rate?
Responda
-
azithromycin
-
erythromycin
-
polymyxin B
-
gentamicin
Questão 34
Questão
what is important to remember when using Sulfacetamide
Responda
-
it is incompatible with silver-containing preparations
-
must have tonometry available
-
it has a high hypersensitivity rate
-
may cause localized ocular toxicity
Questão 35
Questão
Children 3 months through 8 years are most likely to have what type of Bacterial conjunctivitis
select all that apply
Responda
-
staphylococcal
-
streptococcal
-
Haemophilus
-
Staphylococcus aureus
-
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Questão 36
Questão
what is the treatment for Conjunctivitis-otitis syndrome
Questão 37
Questão
What symptoms would make you suspect herpes keratitis? if herpes keratitis is suspected what should be done next?
Responda
-
intense redness of the eye, Watery/mucus discharge from the eye, fever blister on or near the eye; examination with woodslamp
-
Swelling of the lymph nodes in front of the ears, fever, slight Pinkness of the eye; referral to ophthalmologist
-
burning, gritty sensation to the eye, lesion close to or on the eye, fever; referral to ophthalmologist
-
Crustiness around the eyelids upon waking in the morning, cough, fever; ocular assessment with ophthalmoscope
Questão 38
Questão
while removing a cerumen impaction you notice that while irrigating, your patient suddenly develops nystagmus and states that they are suddenly dizzy. what is the likely cause of this?
Responda
-
irrigation was being performed too forcefully
-
the irrigation solution was not warmed
-
irrigation solution has bypassed the ear drum and is interfering with the middle ear
-
the patient is having a seizure
Questão 39
Questão
which statement is FALSE with reguard to Corticosteroids
Responda
-
have metabolic, anti-inflammatory, and growth-suppressing effects
-
high levels of cortisol can cause decreased memory recall, anxiety and disturbed sleep patterns
-
Glucocorticoids decrease blood glucose concentration by stimulating glycogenesis in the liver
-
Corticosteroids can raise your risk of infections due to the wide range of effects on the immune system
Questão 40
Questão
What determines systolic Blood pressure?
Questão 41
Questão
What determines diastolic blood pressure?
Responda
-
Total peripheral resistance
-
Cardiac output
-
mean arterial pressure divided by ejection fraction
-
end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)
Questão 42
Questão
select what factors will have a direct effect on systemic arterial pressure. select all that apply.
Questão 43
Questão
an increase in BP will send inhibitory impulses to the sympathetic vasomotor center in the brainstem resulting in what?
Responda
-
excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS results in decreased heart rate,
-
Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in increased heart rate
-
Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in vasodilation of peripheral arterioles
-
excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle
Questão 44
Questão
changes in BP is sensed by ____ located in _____
Responda
-
baroreceptors; aorta
-
Mechanoreceptors; carotid arteries
-
Nociceptors; arch of the aorta
-
Mechanoreceptors; kidneys
Questão 45
Questão
what are the ultimate goals of Angina therapy
Responda
-
to treat anginal chest pain and return to normal activities
-
reduce the risks of stroke
-
reduce the risks of MI
-
smooth muscle and cardiac relaxation
Questão 46
Questão
what statements are true about organic nitrates. select all that apply
Questão 47
Questão
what makes Ranolazine unique for the treatment of angina?
Responda
-
Have a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect and ↓ afterload, Decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, Increases myocardial perfusion
-
decreases peripheral vascular resistance and thereby MOD, as the heart has decreased afterload
-
cause arterial smooth muscle relaxation, which results in peripheral vasodilation, decreased afterload,
-
Has antianginal and anti-ischemic effects that do not depend on reduction in heart rate or blood pressure
Questão 48
Questão
what medication reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of thromboxane A2
Responda
-
Aspirin
-
Nitroglycerin
-
Nifedipide (Procardia)
-
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Questão 49
Questão
select what would be classified as class I according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society
Responda
-
Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals
-
Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs
-
Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina
-
Chest pain that occurs at rest
Questão 50
Questão
select what would be classified as class II according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society
Responda
-
Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals
-
Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs
-
Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina
-
Chest pain that occurs at rest
Questão 51
Questão
select what would be classified as class III according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society
Responda
-
Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals
-
Chest pain that occurs at rest
-
Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina
-
Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs
Questão 52
Questão
select what would be classified as class IV according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society
Responda
-
Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals
-
Chest pain that occurs at rest
-
Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina
-
Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs
Questão 53
Questão
What is considered to be the foundation of initial drug therapy for patients with angina ?
Questão 54
Questão
when diagnosing heart failure why might a chest x-ray be ordered?
Responda
-
it can be used to identify and distinguish between systolic dysfunction and preserved systolic function.
-
can show Cephalization of the vascular supply
-
can show left-ventricular hypertrophy and axis deviation
-
used to rule out pulmonary embolism
Questão 55
Questão
select the types of heart failure. select all that apply
Responda
-
low-output failure
-
high-output failure
-
Systolic dysfunction
-
Diastolic dysfunction
Questão 56
Questão
What is the most common BB used in heart failure?
Responda
-
Atenolol
-
Losartan
-
carvedilol
-
clonidine
Questão 57
Questão
how does Digoxin work?
Responda
-
Digoxin decreases contractility by decreasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
-
Digoxin increases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
-
Digoxin increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
-
Digoxin decreases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
Questão 58
Questão
Patients with left-ventricular dysfunction with current or prior symptoms of HF are classified as what stage according to ACC and AHA guidelines.
Responda
-
Stage A
-
Stage B
-
Stage C
-
stage D
Questão 59
Questão
Which of the following is NOT one of the diagnostic criteria for DM?
Questão 60
Questão
What is true about DM type 1?
Responda
-
Typically diagnosed early in life
-
the bodies compensatory insulin production mechanisms reduce the onset of clinical symptoms for many years
-
90% to 95% of cases are diagnosed before the age of 30.
-
If the disease progresses without treatment hypoglycemia, coma and death can occur.
Questão 61
Questão
What are the treatment targets for Glycemic control in DM? select all that apply
Responda
-
2 hour postprandial plasma glucose less than 180 mg/dL
-
Hemoglobin A1c less than 5%
-
Random urine albumin/Cr less than 30mcg/mg
creatinine
-
Preprandial plasma glucose 70 to 130 mg/dL
Questão 62
Questão
What is the treatment target for blood pressure when treating DM?
Responda
-
less than 130/80, 140/80 for patients with DM, hypertension
-
less than 120/60, 130/80 for patients with DM, hypertension
-
less than 140/80, 145/85 for patients with DM, hypertension
-
less than 130/80, 150/90 for patients with DM, hypertension
Questão 63
Questão
what are the treatment targets for lipid control when treating DM?
Responda
-
HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <50mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl
-
HDL >150mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl
-
HDL >50mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl
-
HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <150mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl
Questão 64
Questão
what factors effect the treatment plan and drug selection process when treating DM? Select all that apply
Responda
-
individual patient variables (race, weight, pregnant etc.)
-
current AHA guidelines
-
Desiered gylcemic target
-
type of diabetes
-
severity of the hyper/hypo glycemia
Questão 65
Questão
For the treatment of type 2 DM what is the first-line therapy for most patients?
Questão 66
Questão
Insulin with and onset of 5-30min, peak 0.5-3h and duration of 3-4h describes what type of insulin?
Questão 67
Questão
Insulin with and onset of 30-60min, peak 2-4h and duration of 3-7h describes what type of insulin?
Questão 68
Questão
Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, peak 4-10h and duration of 10-16h describes what type of insulin?
Questão 69
Questão
Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, no peak, and duration of 20-24h describes what type of insulin?
Questão 70
Questão
Generally, what percentage of daily insulin is given as an intermediate or long-acting form of insulin?
Responda
-
0-25%
-
25-50%
-
50-75%
-
75-100%
Questão 71
Questão
a 1 Unit bolus of insulin will typically lower glucose by approximately
Responda
-
10-20mg/dl
-
60-90mg/dl
-
20-60mg/dl
-
10-40mg/dl
Questão 72
Questão
Each 15 gm Carbohydrate serving raises BG by approximately
Responda
-
15mg/dl
-
25mg/dl
-
50mg/dl
-
70mg/dl
Questão 73
Questão
what percentage of beta cells must be lost before hyperglycemia occurs?
Responda
-
50-60%
-
60-70%
-
70-80%
-
80-90%
-
90-100%
Questão 74
Questão
what statement is true about Insulin
Responda
-
alcohol use, increases hyperglycemia
-
Beta blockers mask hypoglycemic symptoms
-
Short-acting Insulin onset of action is 1 to 1.5 hours, and its duration is 12 to 24 hours
-
Rapid-Acting (RAI) duration of action is 4 to 6 hours
Questão 75
Questão
what is the preferred injection site that absorbs 50% more than other sites
Questão 76
Questão
what insulin's are pregnancy category C? select all that apply
Responda
-
Aspart
-
Humulin R
-
glargine
-
glulisine
Questão 77
Questão
What is important to consider if your patient has Hyperthyroidism and is taking insulin?
Responda
-
delays insulin breakdown, and may require less insulin units
-
they have improved insulin sensitivity, will require less insulin
-
increases renal clearance, requiring more insulin than baseline
-
insulin can potentiate effects of antidiuretic hormone
Questão 78
Questão
what is the indication for the use of Sulfonylureas when treating DM?
Responda
-
Excessive production of glucose by the liver
-
rapid intestinal glucose dumping
-
Insufficient production of endogenous insulin
-
Decreased tissue insensitivity to insulin
Questão 79
Questão
what patient would you NOT prescribe Metformin (Glucophage) for the treatment of type 2 DM?
Questão 80
Questão
your patient who is taking metformin and an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor to treat their DM presents with unsteady gait, generalized confusion and elevated anxiety CBG is 50mg/dl. what would you give to correct this?
Questão 81
Questão
what DM medication should not be used with ACEIs due to the increased risk of angioedemia