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Pharm exam #3

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Made up questions for exam 3
Diana Flores
Quiz by Diana Flores, updated more than 1 year ago
Diana Flores
Created by Diana Flores over 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Which of the following is not safe during pregnancy?
Answer
  • ACEI
  • ARB
  • Aliskiren
  • None are safe during pregnancy

Question 2

Question
Which of the following metabolic changes is not seen with use of loop diuretics?
Answer
  • Decrease in Ca
  • Decrease in K
  • Increase in Mg
  • Increase in Glucose

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of thiazides?
Answer
  • Hyponatremia
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Hypouricemia
  • Sexual dysfunction

Question 4

Question
Which of the following G IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists has a long half life and is irreversible?
Answer
  • ASA
  • Tirofiban
  • Abciximab
  • Eptifibatide

Question 5

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of osmostic diuretics?
Answer
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Anuria
  • Local pain and venous irritation
  • Acute renal failure

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of LMWH?
Answer
  • Low bioavailability
  • Monitored with PTT
  • Inexpensive
  • Renally excreted

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of Aliskiren?
Answer
  • Decrease in uric acid
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Angioedema

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is not correct regarding eplerenone?
Answer
  • It is more expensive than spironolactone
  • Less endocrine-related side effects than spironolactone
  • Lower chance of hyperkalemia
  • Higher affinity for aldosterone receptors

Question 9

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of ACEI?
Answer
  • Cough
  • Hypotension
  • Gynecomastia
  • Hyperkalemia

Question 10

Question
Acetazolamide causes metabolic alkalosis because you excrete bicarbonate, and therefore it is best to administer this diuretic to metabolic acidic patients.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 11

Question
Which of the following are better to avoid with use of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Answer
  • ACEI
  • Lithium
  • Eplerenone
  • Amiloride

Question 12

Question
Choose which of the following you would administer to a CKD patient
Answer
  • Thiazide
  • CCB
  • ACEI
  • ARB

Question 13

Question
Which of the following diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule to block sodium reabsorption?
Answer
  • Aldosterone antagonists
  • Thiazides
  • Loop diuretics
  • CAIs

Question 14

Question
You always have drug interactions with NSAIDS with use of diurectics because they inhibit prostaglandins which antagonizes the action of diurectics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 15

Question
Which diuretic would you not want to use in a patient who has gout?
Answer
  • Loop diuretics
  • Sodium channel blockers
  • Aldosterone receptor antagonists
  • Thiazides

Question 16

Question
How does Conivaptan promote free water diuresis?
Answer
  • By stimulating cGMP resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation
  • By being excreted unchanged and causing water to be retained within the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle due to the freely permeable water
  • By blocking the epithelial sodium channels on principal cells and cause sodium excretion
  • By antagonizing vasopressing

Question 17

Question
Lisinopril antagonizes the AT1 receptor
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
Which of the following metabolic changes would you see with the use of a thiazide?
Answer
  • Increase Mg
  • Increase Ca
  • Decrease glucose
  • Increase in potassium

Question 19

Question
Hydrochlorthiazide is used more than chlorthalidone because it is more potent and research has shown that it produces a greater reduction in systolic blood pressure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
In which of the following conditions would not benefit from the use of vasopressin receptor antagonists?
Answer
  • Urinary frequency
  • CHF
  • cirrhosis
  • SIADH

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is a side effect Bosentan?
Answer
  • Epistaxis
  • Visual disturbances
  • Liver cirrhosis
  • Dyspepsia

Question 22

Question
Which of the following would require careful dosing in a renal failure patient?
Answer
  • Fondaparinux
  • Abciximab
  • Warfarin
  • Argatraban

Question 23

Question
Which of the following drug combinations would not be beneficial?
Answer
  • Metolazone and Bumetanide
  • HCTZ and ARB
  • ACEI and ARBs
  • Furosemide and Lisinopril

Question 24

Question
Liver toxicity is a side effect of tolvaptan?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Which of the following have short half-lives
Answer
  • UFH
  • Warfarin
  • ASA
  • Fondaparinux
  • Vorapaxar
  • Abciximab
  • Eptifibatide
  • Tirofiban

Question 26

Question
Why do we need to overlap warfarin and heparin or LMWH in a patient with a new VTE?
Answer
  • Because you want to deactivate antithrombin
  • It takes about 5 days to replace activated clotting factors with dysfunctional clotting factors
  • It takes about 5 days to replace Protein C and Protein S
  • You should never overlap warfarin with LMWH or UFH

Question 27

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets can cause dyspnea?
Answer
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Ticlopidine

Question 28

Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause epistaxis?
Answer
  • Epoprosternol
  • Iloprost
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)

Question 29

Question
Which of the following is safe during lactation?
Answer
  • Dabigatran
  • Direct X inhibitors
  • Warfarin
  • Indirect X inhibitors

Question 30

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets can be used when a patient has had a cardiac event while taking clopidogrel?
Answer
  • Ticlopidine
  • Ticagrelor
  • Prasugrel
  • UFH

Question 31

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is used with aspirin in post-ACS patients?
Answer
  • Ticagrelor
  • Ticlopidine
  • Prasugrel
  • Clopidogrel

Question 32

Question
Liver toxicity is a side effect of conivaptan
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is hardly used in clinical practice and can cause neutropenia?
Answer
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticlopidine

Question 34

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is contraindicated for patients with a history of stroke/TIA?
Answer
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Ticlopidine

Question 35

Question
Ranolazine can be used ONLY in acute angina attacks
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
It is important to hold indirect factor X inhibitors for at least 48 hours
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
Why is it important to place a patient who develops HIT on another anticoagulant?
Answer
  • To decrease the platelet count.
  • To prevent a prothrombotic condition
  • To prevent bleeding.
  • To induce a prothrombotic condition

Question 38

Question
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for HIT?
Answer
  • Stop heparin products
  • Stop warfarin until platelet count is above 150,000
  • Use alternative anticoagulants
  • Give a high dose of warfarin when restarting

Question 39

Question
Which of the following drugs can cause serious cardiovascular and thromboemolic events if dose and hemoglobin range is not taken into account?
Answer
  • Calcitriol
  • ERAs
  • ESAs
  • Dopamine

Question 40

Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of argatraban?
Answer
  • Monitored by PTT
  • Hepatic elimination
  • Decrease in INR
  • Can be used for treatment of HIT

Question 41

Question
Which of the following is absolutely not safe during pregnancy?
Answer
  • Warfarin
  • Heparin/LMWH
  • Fondaparinux
  • IV DTIs

Question 42

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin?
Answer
  • It causes less GI bleeding than dabigatran
  • It causes more GI bleed than Rivaroxaban
  • It causes less GI bleeds than Apixaban
  • It causes less ICH in Direct Factor X inhibitors and Dabigatran

Question 43

Question
How long should one hold warfarin before major surgery
Answer
  • 24 hours
  • 48 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 5 days

Question 44

Question
Which of the following has no reversal agent or is irreversible?
Answer
  • LMHW
  • UFH
  • Warfarin
  • Rivaroxaban

Question 45

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of Acetazolamide?
Answer
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Kidney stones
  • Paresthesia
  • Hypernatremia

Question 46

Question
Which of the following is NOT a cause for concern of sodium nitroprusside-induce cyanide toxicity?
Answer
  • Renal dysfunction
  • Increasing dose during therapy
  • Post-MI
  • Increasing duration of therapy

Question 47

Question
Which of the following is true about SELECTIVE beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Answer
  • Safe to use in COPD patients
  • Has a slightly better metabolic effect
  • Loses selectivity at lower doses
  • Has little effect in patients with reversible airway disease

Question 48

Question
Which of the following is a correct rationale as to why we would use a beta blocker to treat MI/angina peri-operatively? Choose all that apply:
Answer
  • To decrease production of aqueous humor
  • To decrease HR
  • To decrease contractility
  • To decrease portal hypertension
  • To inhibit vasodilatation or arteriolar spasms over the cortex
  • To decrease oxygen demand

Question 49

Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fondaparinux?
Answer
  • It directly affects factor X
  • It is renally excreted
  • It has a long half-life, so not good for bridging with warfarin
  • There is still risk of HIT

Question 50

Question
The benefit to using calcitriol over vitamin D analogs is that it can decrease the chance of hypercalcemia and hyperphosphetemia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
Which of the following are nonselective beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Answer
  • Atenolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Propranolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Nadolol
  • Timolol
  • Labetalol
  • Satelol

Question 52

Question
Which of the following diuretics is the most potent?
Answer
  • Thiazides
  • Potassium-sparing diuretics
  • Loop diuretics
  • Sodium channel blockers

Question 53

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin reversal agents?
Answer
  • PCC are more efficient than FFP
  • PCC is usually given in a large volume
  • FFP and PCC are given with Vitamin K
  • FFP has larger risk of thrombosis

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is a side effect of hydralazine ONLY?
Answer
  • Sodium and water retention
  • Hypertrichosis
  • Precipitation of angina
  • Induced MI

Question 55

Question
Which of the following would you never want to give with nitrates due to their drug interaction?
Answer
  • Prostanoids
  • ERAs
  • Hydralazine
  • PDE-5 drugs

Question 56

Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause sepsis?
Answer
  • Epoprostenol
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Iloprost
  • Trerostinil (Tyvaso)

Question 57

Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause severe hypotension?
Answer
  • Epoprostenol
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
  • Ilioprost

Question 58

Question
Treprostinil (Tyvaso) is an inhaled prostenoid
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 59

Question
Which of the following are NOT safe to use during pregnancy? Choose all that apply:
Answer
  • PDE-5 drugs
  • Sodium nitroprusside
  • ERAs
  • Prostenoids
  • Riociguat

Question 60

Question
Which of the following antiplatelets works by inhibiting ADP receptor?
Answer
  • GP IIb/IIIA inhibitors
  • Vorapaxar
  • P2Y12 inhibitors
  • ASA

Question 61

Question
Why are endothelin receptor antagonists used as a cardiac drug?
Answer
  • It's ability to block ETB receptor
  • Because of its vasoconstricting effects
  • Because of its ability to release NO to cause vasodilation
  • It's ability to block ETA receptor

Question 62

Question
Which of the following causes an increase in INR?
Answer
  • Dabigatran
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Bactrim with use of warfarin
  • Short gut syndrome

Question 63

Question
Nitrate tolerance can be fixed by having a nitrate-free period lasting from 4-8 hours
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 64

Question
How do calcium-channel blockers cause decrease in contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity?
Answer
  • By blocking sodium influx, causing calcium overload through the sodium/calcium exchanger
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in arterial smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in preload

Question 65

Question
When using dihydropyridines, one must be careful when using it with digoxin and beta blockers, as this may cause additive negative effects on cardiac conduction
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 66

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding nitrates and their mechanism of action?
Answer
  • They cause arterial dilation
  • They are denitrated to NO, increasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
  • They are denitrated to NO, decreasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
  • Releases NO from the drug itself, causing vasodilation

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is a reason for loss of response to ESA therapy?
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Benign process
  • Iron deficiency
  • Pure white cell aplasia

Question 68

Question
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause a decrease in renal blood flow as an adverse effect?
Answer
  • Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
  • Dobutamine and Epinephrine
  • Norepinephrine and Dopamine
  • Phenylephrine and Dobutamine

Question 69

Question
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause reflex bradycardia?
Answer
  • Dobutamine
  • Epinephrine
  • Phenylephrine
  • Dopamine

Question 70

Question
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?
Answer
  • Floppy Iris Syndrome
  • Prolonged QT interval
  • Bradycardia
  • Orthostatic hypertension

Question 71

Question
ARBs are not used as first line therapy despite the less occurrence of side effects.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Answer
  • GI symptoms
  • Ototoxicity
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperkalemia

Question 73

Question
Which of the following IV iron products can alter magnetic resonance imaging studies?
Answer
  • Iron dextran
  • Ferric gluconate
  • Ferumoxytol
  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Question 74

Question
Which of the following IV iron products can cause an anaphylactic reaction?
Answer
  • Iron dextran
  • Ferric gluconate
  • Ferumoxytol
  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Question 75

Question
Iron sucrose is given in divided doses, about 10 dialysis sessions
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
Answer
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Ototoxicity

Question 77

Question
Which of following phosphate binders can cause metabolic acidosis?
Answer
  • Calcium carbonate
  • Calcium acetate
  • Renagel
  • Renvela

Question 78

Question
Aliskiren inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 79

Question
Ranolazine inhibits myocardial cell sodium/calcium exchanger, preventing ischemia-induced contractile dysfunction and delaying the onset of angina
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 80

Question
Which of the following a Class I drug?
Answer
  • Propafenone
  • Propranolol
  • Amiodarone
  • Diltiazem

Question 81

Question
Dronedarone is a
Answer
  • beta-blocker
  • potassium channel blocker
  • sodium channel blocker
  • calcium channel blocker

Question 82

Question
Lidocaine is
Answer
  • for atrial arrhythmias
  • the strongest among the sodium channel blockers
  • used as a local anesthetic
  • a class IC drug

Question 83

Question
Which is the best drug for use in patients with CHF or structural heart disease?
Answer
  • Flecainide
  • Propafenone
  • Amiodarone
  • Verapamil
  • Dofetilide

Question 84

Question
Choose all that would be used for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.
Answer
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide
  • Verapamil
  • Procainamide
  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin

Question 85

Question
Which of the following is a side effects of Amiodarone?
Answer
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Increase in iodine
  • Photosensitivity
  • These are all side effects of Amiodarone

Question 86

Question
Which of the following has beta-blocking activity?
Answer
  • Propafenone
  • Flecainide
  • Ibutilide
  • Procainamide

Question 87

Question
Which of the following does NOT rely on renal function for elimination
Answer
  • Sotalol
  • Dofetilide
  • Digoxin
  • Amiodarone

Question 88

Question
How does adenosine function in stress testing?
Answer
  • Causes vasodilation in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
  • Causes vasoconstriction in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
  • Causes vasodilation in diseased arteries, revealing the healthy coronary arteries
  • Causes vasoconstriction in diseased arteries, revealing healthy coronary arteries

Question 89

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin?
Answer
  • Inhibits potassium channels, decreasing intracellular potassium
  • Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, increasing sodium concentration thereby increasing calcium concentration
  • Causes negative inotropic effects
  • Causes positive dromotropic/chronotropic effects

Question 90

Question
Choose which of the following is true for Amiodarone
Answer
  • Shorter half life than dronedarone
  • Slightly more effective than dronedarone in Afib patients
  • High risk of side effects
  • More GI side effects
  • I2 in structure and effects thyroid
  • Does not have negative inotropic effects
  • Cannot be used for CHF

Question 91

Question
How do calcium channel blockers work as antiarrhythmics?
Answer
  • They dilate arterial smooth muscle
  • Mostly effects the sodium channels in atrial and ventricular tissues and Purkinjie fibers
  • Acts on the SA and AV node
  • Blocks sodium channels

Question 92

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding the use of beta blockers perioperatively?
Answer
  • Should be continued in patients who are already on a beta blocker
  • Use of them perioperatively in any situation is standard of practice
  • Perioperative beta blockage started within one day or less before noncardiac surgery decreases risk of stroke, death, hypotension, and bradycardia
  • It is not a clinical contreversy

Question 93

Question
Which of the following drugs should you be cautious due to chance of developing QT prolongation?
Answer
  • Dronedarone
  • Beta-blockers
  • Felcainide
  • Digoxin

Question 94

Question
Which of the following drug classes could cause Torsades de Pointes?
Answer
  • Beta blockers
  • Class IA drugs
  • Class IB drugs
  • Calcium channel blockers

Question 95

Question
Which of the following drugs can be used for ventricular arrhythmias?
Answer
  • Propafenone
  • Digoxin
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide

Question 96

Question
Which of the following CANNOT be used for cardioversion?
Answer
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide
  • Propafenone
  • Verapamil
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