Physio cycle 1, 2018-2019 retake

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cycle 1 Physiology Quiz on Physio cycle 1, 2018-2019 retake, created by Elisabeth Haasen on 10/11/2021.
Elisabeth Haasen
Quiz by Elisabeth Haasen, updated more than 1 year ago
Elisabeth Haasen
Created by Elisabeth Haasen about 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of following sentences are true?
Answer
  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood
  • Ratio of agglutinins of ABO in plasma of blood rises throughout childhood.
  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.
  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B, being simple and common antigens.

Question 2

Question
Which of following statements concern G-protein coupled receptors?
Answer
  • G-protein coupled receptors hydrolyses GTP, transferred from G-protein to the binding site of the receptor.
  • Muscarinic receptor is an example of G-protein coupled receptor.
  • All adrenergic receptors belong to family of G-protein coupled receptors.
  • G-protein coupled receptors are metabotropic, they initiate formation of second messengers: cAMP or IP3.

Question 3

Question
Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:
Answer
  • Administration of heparin slows the process of agglutination.
  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon, in vivo process continues, engaging mechanism of destruction of erythrocytes.
  • Administration of isotonic solution of NaCl can facilitate IgG-dependent agglutination of erythrocytes
  • Gamma globulins of IgG class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.

Question 4

Question
Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?
Answer
  • Prolonged time of the clotting time test
  • Prolonged prothrombin time
  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.
  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

Question 5

Question
Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?
Answer
  • It activates fibrinolysis.
  • TxA2 activates platelets – it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).
  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.
  • It mediates vascular contraction.

Question 6

Question
Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?
Answer
  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.
  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.
  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.
  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Question 7

Question
Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?
Answer
  • Muscarinic receptor are coupled to phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase
  • GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor
  • tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands
  • some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors

Question 8

Question
Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?
Answer
  • binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase
  • extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein
  • inhibitory G protein (Gi protein) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells-
  • the G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell function

Question 9

Question
Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?
Answer
  • Ryanodine receptor
  • Rhodopsin receptor
  • PTH receptor
  • Nicotine receptor

Question 10

Question
Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland =APG?
Answer
  • dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback
  • liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)
  • TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell
  • GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH
  • prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Question 11

Question
Actions of angiotensin II are:
Answer
  • it mediates vasoconstriction
  • it decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys
  • it stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex
  • it increases heart rate

Question 12

Question
Oxytocin:
Answer
  • it produces contraction of the uterus
  • it binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus
  • it is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells
  • it has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk

Question 13

Question
Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:
Answer
  • increased arterial pressure
  • reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney
  • decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule)
  • increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Question 14

Question
Put following ions the ECF in proper order, beginning from the most concentrated (mmol/L):
Answer
  • Na+, Cl-, Bicarbonate, K+
  • Cl-, Bicarbonate, Na+, K+
  • Bicarbonate, Cl-, K+, Na+
  • K+, Cl-, Na+, Bicarbonate

Question 15

Question
Which of the following statement concerning active transport are true?
Answer
  • Na/K ATPase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires 2 ATP molecules
  • co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K-ATPase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport
  • calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF
  • active transport mechanism are able to move substances against concentration gradient

Question 16

Question
Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:
Answer
  • rise of liberation of histamine from mast cells
  • rise of gluconeogenesis
  • rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids
  • intensification of catecholamine-dependent bronchodilation

Question 17

Question
Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:
Answer
  • Extracellular ligand such as glycine
  • Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane
  • mechanical deformation of the cell
  • second messenger such as IP3

Question 18

Question
Which of the following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic receptors?
Answer
  • beta-adrenergic receptor is ligand-gated channel
  • activity of adrenergic receptors brings EPSP to the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction
  • beta-adrenergic receptors are G protein coupled receptors related to adenylyl cyclase
  • activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP

Question 19

Question
Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?
Answer
  • growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect
  • PTH up-regulated (increases) mobilization of calcium ion from bones
  • PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney
  • thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Question 20

Question
Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?
Answer
  • 5% solution of glucose
  • benzene, ether and other organic solvents
  • IgG against D-antigen administered to Rh-D-negative mother after delivery of the Rh-D positive fetus
  • 0,6% saline

Question 21

Question
Which of the following statements are true in case of erythropoietin (EPO)?
Answer
  • adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO
  • EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys
  • EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors
  • hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release-

Question 22

Question
Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:
Answer
  • 5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood
  • 10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood
  • part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin
  • carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour

Question 23

Question
Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?
Answer
  • hey migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes
  • they release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin
  • they belong to the adaptive immune system. they are not able to phagocyte
  • they aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)
  • the exhibit chemotaxis

Question 24

Question
Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?
Answer
  • administration of heparin slows the process agglutination
  • agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin
  • gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature
  • agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet’s GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen

Question 25

Question
Which of following sentences are true?
Answer
  • agglutinins against antigens of Rh system develop in childhood
  • immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero
  • immunoglobulin against antigens 0-A-B blood type system are produced by the fetus before the birth
  • agglutinins in 0-A-B blood type system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment

Question 26

Question
In Rh system of blood:
Answer
  • D antigen is the most antigenic (the strongest) component of the system
  • D antigen is the only antigen of the system
  • antigens are proteins, located only on membranes of erythrocytes
  • agglutinogens are synthesized in Rh-D negative individuals after exposure to Rh-D positive blood

Question 27

Question
Complement is a group of more than 25 proteins of the innate immunity. Find their actions
Answer
  • Chemotaxis (chemoattraction) of macrophages and neutrophils
  • degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes
  • promotion of agglutination of invading microbes
  • presenting on the water soluble antigen
  • opsonization
  • maturation of erythrocytes

Question 28

Question
Which statements characterize IgG immunoglobulin?
Answer
  • it can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes
  • it cannot cross blood-placenta barrier
  • binding of C1 complex of complement to antigen-IgG complex initiates classical pathway of complement activation
  • it has only 2 antigen-binding sites
  • it is a memory immunoglobulin

Question 29

Question
Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test?
Answer
  • its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets
  • it does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis
  • it is prolonged in people treated with heparin
  • it tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Question 30

Question
Choose the correct statements concerning B lymphocytes?
Answer
  • they mediate cellular immunity
  • lymphocytes B are classified as professional antigen presenting cells
  • they are formed mainly in in thymus
  • B lymphocytes express B cell receptors on their cell membrane. It allows B lymphocytes to bind a specific antigen

Question 31

Question
Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:
Answer
  • 75%
  • 0%
  • 50%
  • 25%

Question 32

Question
Which of the following statement concern G-Protein concern receptors?
Answer
  • Nicotinic receptor is an example of G-Protein coupled receptor
  • Examples of G-Protein coupled receptor are rhodopsin and GABA-Receptor.
  • G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors
  • All G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors, they activate intracellular enzymes.

Question 33

Question
Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?
Answer
  • All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.
  • Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.
  • Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.
  • Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors.

Question 34

Question
Which if following receptors are Ionotropic receptor?
Answer
  • IP3 and ryanodine receptors
  • Rhodopsin and vasopressin receptors
  • Insulin and adrenergic receptors
  • Glycine and nicotinic receptors

Question 35

Question
Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor: A) G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate B) Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates C) Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins. D) Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP E) Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit phosphorylates other proteins.
Answer
  • D, C, A, E, B
  • B, D, A, C, E
  • E, C, A, D, B
  • B, D, A, E, C

Question 36

Question
Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?
Answer
  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through cellular membranes against concentration gradient.
  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.
  • Facilitated diffusion characterized with limit rate of transfer of substance diffuse as maximum saturation.
  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Question 37

Question
Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:
Answer
  • insulin receptor open channels for tyrosine, which become phosphorylated in cytosol of the cell
  • Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for chloride ion
  • smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched it is mediated by stretch gated channels
  • action potential of excitable cells is usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrical gated channels (Na+ & K+)
  • action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels

Question 38

Question
Find right statement concerning membrane transportation:
Answer
  • secondary active transport uses potential energy stored in concentration gradient of some ions created by energy liberated from ATP, such as in sodium concentration gradient dependent transport of glucose
  • secondary active transport can transfer co-transported molecules even against concentration gradient
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